Quiz 1- As regards entamoeba histolytica life cycle , ingestion of binucleate cyst causes :- a. Amoebiasis
b. Amoebic dysentery c. All of the above
d. None of the above - Flask shaped ulcer in the rectosigmoid colon may result in :-
a. Amoeboma
b. Post-dysenteric ulcerative colitis
c. All of the above
d. None of the above - Blood
a. Leukocytosis
picture of a patient suffers from amoebic liver abscess shows :-
b. Cyst
c. Trophozoite d. Anemia - Presence of massive exudate in stool sample indicates infection with :-
a. Entamoeba histolytica
b. Entamoeba dispar
c. Bacteria
d. Both b and c - As regards amoebiasis , positive serologic titres can be detected in :-
a. None-invasive intestinal amoebiasis
b. Hepatic amoebic abscess
c. Invasive intestinal amoebiasis
d. Both b and c - As regards acanthamoeba spp. Infection , skin scraping shows :-
a. b. c. d. - In case
a. b. c. d.
Trophozoite Cyst
Biflagellate form Both a and b
of amoebic ulcer , rectal scraping shows :-
Leukocytosis Binucleate cyst Trophozoite Quadrinucleate cyst - As regards Entamoeba histolytica , ingestion of quadrinucleate cyst causes :-
a. Amoebiasis
b. Amoebic dysentery
c. All of the above
d. None of the above - Presence of scanty exudate in stool sample indicates infection with :-
a. Entamoeba histolytica
b. Entamoeba dispar
c. Bacteria
d. Both b and c - Acanthamoeba can be a problem for the following people except :-
a. Who swim in super chlorinated water
b. Who wear contact lenses
c. Who swim in stagnant warm fresh water
d. Both b and c - Which of the following protozoa is opportunistic ?
a. Acanthamoeba spp.
b. Naegleria fowleri
c. Entamoeba histolytica - What do you suspect to see in CSF of patient complaining of chronic granulomatous amoebic encephalitis ?
a. Trophozoite b. Cyst c.
d. 13. Flask a. b. c. d.
Biflagellate form
Both a and b
shaped ulcer in recto-sigmoid colon may result from infection by :-
Entamoeba histolytica
Bacteria Entamoeba dispar a and b - entamoeba histolytica probably spread from the intestine to liver via :-
a. portal circulation
b. peritoneal cavity
c. all of the above
d. none of the above - presence of charcot –leyden crystals in stool sample indicates infection with :-
a. entamoeba histolytica
b. entamoeba hartmanii
c. bacteria
d. both b and c - extra- intestinal amoebiasis , can be treated with :-
a. metronidazole
b. chloroquine
c. diloxanide furoate
d. all of the above - as regards acanthamoeba spp. Infection , skin scraping shows :-
a. trophozoite
b. cyst
c. biflagellate form
d. a and b - as regards naegleria fowleri infection microscopic examination of CSF shows :-
a. trophozoite
b. cyst
c. biflagellate form
d. all of the above - which of the following parasite is highly endemic in Egypt :-
a. entamoeba coli
b. entamoeba histolytica
c. acanthamoeba spp.
d. All of the above - The following parasites cause dysentery except :-
a. Entamoeba histolytica
b. Entamoeba coli
c. Balantidium coli - The following intestinal amoeba trophozoites have sluggish motility except :-
a. Iodamoeba butschlii
b. Dientamoeba fragilis
c. Entamoeba histolytica
d. Endolimax nana - Which of the following parasite is transmitted to man through autoinfection?
a. Naegleria fowleri
b. Balantidium coli
c. Acanthamoeba spp. - Which of the following parasitic diseases can be prevented by examination and treatment of food handlers?
a. Amoebiasis
b. Balantidiasis
c. All of the above
d. None of the above - As regards balantidiasis all of the following are true except :-
a. Trophozoite secrete proteolytic enzyme
b. Causes extra-intestinal lesions
c. Intestinal perforation may occur
d. Drug of choice metronidazole - In sigmoidoscopy of flask shaped ulcer of entamoeba histolytica , stage seen is :- a. Trophozoites
b. Cyst
c. Biflagellate from d. None of the above - In sigmoidoscopy of flask shaped ulcer of entamoeba histolytica , trophozoite seen in :-
a. Edge of ulcer
b. Base of ulcer
c. A and b
d. None of the above - Oxytetracyclin used to treat :-
a. Entamoeba histolytica
b. Naegleria fowleri
c. Balantidium coli - Amphotericin B used to treat :-
a. Entamoeba histolytica
b. Naegleria fowleri
c. Balantidium coli - Which of the following protozoa have reservoir hosts :-
a. Entamoeba histolytica
b. Naegleria fowleri
c. Balantidium coli - Which of the following parasite has 3 morphological stages
a. Naegleria fowleri
b. Balantidium coli
c. Acanthamoeba spp. - Confirmatory test in naegleria shows :-
a. Cyst
b. Trophozoite
c. Biflagellate form d. None of the above - As regards entamoeba histolytica all of the following are true except :-
a. Trophozoite secrete proteolytic enzymes
b. Cause extra-intestinal lesions
c. Cause duodenitis
d. Infective stage is cyst - Microscopic examination of aspirate from amoebic liver abscess reveals :- a. Trophozoite
b. Cyst
c. A and b
d. None of the above - Anchovy sauce appearance of liver abscess occur in case of :-
a. Entamoeba histolytica
b. Balantidium coli
c. Naegleria fowleri - Only amoeba has additional morphological form ( biflagellate form) is :-
a. Entamoeba histolytica
b. Balantidium coli
c. Naegleria fowleri
36- Trophozoite form of amoeba are most likely to be found in :-
a- Semi-formed stool
b- Hard stool
c- Diarrheal stool
d- All of the above
37- The amoeba having a flagellate form is :-
a- Trichomonas vaginalis
b- Naegleria fowleri
c- Acanthamoeba
d- All of the above
38- All these are pathogenic protozoa except :- a- Entamoeba histolytica
b- Entamoeba coli ( OR E. hartmanii , E.dispar )
c- Balantidium coli
d- Giardia lamblia
39- Which of the following cause primary amoebic encephalitis ( PAM) :-
a- Entamoeba histolytica
b- Dientamoeba fragilis
c- Naegleria fowleri
d- Balantidium coli
40- The amoebic liver abscess :-
a- Associated with eosinophilia
b- Associated with lymphadenopathy
c- Associated with portal HTN
d- Should be aspirated , reveals anchovy sauce appearance
41- Charcot leyden crystals appear in stool in infection with :-
a- Entamoeba histolytica
b- Entamoeba coli
c- Bacillary dysentery
d- Trichomonas vaginalis
42- Metronidazole is not indicated in treatment of :-
a- Trichomonas vaginalis
b- Entamoeba histolytica
c- Balantidium coli
d- Acanthamoeba
43- A flask shaped ulcer develop in :-
a- Entamoeba histolytica
b- Balantidium coli
c- Giardia lamblia
d- A,b
44- The patient pass stool with mucous tinged with blood in :-
a- Entamoeba histolytica infection
b- Trichomonas vaginalis infection
c- Giardia lamblia infection
d- Trichomonas vaginalis infection
45- Stool in bacillary dysentery is :-
a- Bulky & offensive
b- Alkaline
c- Acidic
d- Contain charcot leyden crystals
46- Stool in amebic dysentery is :-
a- Bulky & offensive & acidic
b- Bulky & offensive & alkaline
c- Contain bacteria
d- Contain numerous altered RBCs & pus cells
47- In invasive intestinal amoebiasis , diagnosis done by
a- Stool examination
b- Serological tests
c- Radiological tests
d- A&b
48- As regards balantidium coli , all are correct except :-
a. Infective stage is mature cyst
b. Definitive host is man
c. Has only 1 reservoir host
d. Mode of infection is ingestion Mid term - Which of the following antigens is used in montenegero test :- e. Suspension of killed promastigotes
f. Suspension of killed epimastigotes g. Suspension of killed trypomastigotes h. Suspension of killed amastigotes - To diagnose cutaneous leishmaniasis , biopsy is better taken from :-
e. Base of ulcer
f. Edge of ulcer
g. Lymph node draining the ulcer
h. Skin around the ulcer - Why does immune system not protective against trypanosomes :-
e. They have an anti-phagocytic capsule
f. They are obligate intracellular parasites
g. They continuously change their surface antigens
h. They cause lysis of T-cells - Which of the following parasites causes malabsorption syndrome :-
e. Entamoeba histolytica
f. Giardia lamblia
g. Balantidium coli
h. Leishmania donovani - Each of the following statements concerning Kala-azar is correct , except :-
e. Kala-azar caused by leishmania donovani
f. Kala-azar is transmitted by bite of sand flies
g. Kala-azar occurs primarily in north America
h. Kala-azar can be diagnosed by finding amastigotes in bone marrow - Which of the following form is detected in saliva of tsetse fly :-
e. Epimastigotes
f. Amastigote
g. Trypomastigotes h. Promastigotes - Which of the following parasitic diseases can affect the gall bladder:- e. Giardiasis
f. Trichomoniasis g. Balantidiasis
h. Leishmaniasis - As regards leishmania tropica major all of the following are true , except :-
e. Cause urban sore
f. Cause zoonotic disease
g. Present in central Asia and parts of Africa
h. Rodents are main reservoirs - Which of the following parasite invades blood and draining lymph capillaries:-
e. sarcocystis
f. plasmodium
g. polymorphic trypanosomes
h. cryptosporidium
45. which of the following parasites causes lymphadenopathy :- e. plasmodium
f. giardia lamblia
g. naegleria fowleri
h. leishmania donovani - which of the following parasites causes kerandel’s sign :-
d. polymorphic trypanosomes .
e. monomorphic trypanosomes
f. Giardia lamblia
g. Acanthamoeba - Why was plasmodium falciparum associated with CNS manifestations ?
e. Due to continuous or irregular fever
f. Due to autoimmune disease
g. Due to hyperactivation of B-lymphocytes
h. Due to adhesion phenomenon - B-thalassemia protects from infection with :-
e. Plasmodium malariae
f. Plasmodium vivax
g. Plasmodium ovale
h. Plasmodium falciparum - What is the trigger mechanism of black water fever:-
e. Lymphocytic infiltration of liver
f. Irregular doses of Quinine
g. Persistent low parasitemia
h. Presence of hypnozoites - Which of the following parasites causes depression of cellular immunity in human:-
e. Plasmodium ovale
f. Giardia lamblia
g. Leishmania donovani
h. Trichomonas vaginalis - Morula cells is detected in CSF examination in infection with :-
e. Trypanosome gambiense
f. Giardia lamblia
g. Trypanosome cruzei
h. Leishmania tropica - Stained smears from organs in Kala –azar show :-
e. Epimastigote f. promastigote g. trypomastigote h. amastigote - protozoa causing conjunctivitis include:-
e. trypanosoma gambiense
f. trypanosoma rhodesiense
g. trypanosome cruzei
h. leishmania donovani - to diagnose chronic chagas’ disease , biopsy is better taken from :-
e. lymph node
f. spleen
g. blood
h. both a and b - in early diagnosed cases of T.rhodesiense , why does serodiagnosis give false negative results :-
d. humoral antibody will be less than seen in T.gambiense
e. depression of immunity
f. Both a and b - Invasion of blood & lymphatics by T.gambiense is marked by :-
e. Fever
f. Painful sensitivity of palms to pressure
g. Both a and b - Which of the following infection can be prevented by screening of blood donors ?
d. Acute African trypanosomiais (sleeping sickness)
e. Chronic African trypanosomiais (sleeping sickness)
f. American trypanosomiais (chagas’ disease)
g. All of the above - Posterior shift of nucleus occurs in ?
e. T. cruzei
f. T. gambiense
g. T. rhodesiense
h. None of the above 1-
2-
3-
4-
5-
6-
7-
a. b. c. d.
8-
a.
b.
c.
d.
9-
a. b. c. d.
MCQs
Entamoeba histolytica trophozoites are found in: a.Duodenum of infected human.
b. Jejunum of infected human.
c. Caecum of infected human.
d. Ileum of infected human.
Infection with Entamoeba histolytica occurs through eating green salad contaminated with:
a.
b.
c.
Trophozoites of Entamoeba histolytica.
Cysts of Entamoeba histolytica.
Both trophozoites and cysts of Entamoeba histolytica.
Pathogenicity of Entamoeba histolytica depends on: a.Parasite virulence.
b. Condition of intestinal tract.
c. Host resistance.
d. All of the above.
Patients with chronic intestinal amoebiasis suffer from:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Dysentery, tenesmus with painful spasm of anal sphincter.
Recurrent attacks of dysentery alternating with constipation.
Fever, diarrhea, and tenesmus.
None of the above.
The following findings in stool suggest amoebic not bacillary dysentery infection:
a.
b. c. d.
Acidic pH and presence of Charcot Leyden Crystals.
Alkaline pH and presence of Charcot Leyden Crystals. Alkaline pH and absence of Charcot Leyden Crystals. Massive exudate with presence of many pus cells.
Microscopic examination of an aspirate from amoebic liver abscess reveals:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Haematogenous spread from keratitis lesion. Penetration from cribriform plate.
Haematogenous spread from lower respiratory tract. Haematogenous spread from liver abscess.
The trophozoite is the infective stage in:
Giardia lamblia
Trichomonas vaginalis
Entamoeba histolytica Entamoeba coli
The protozoan parasite without a cyst stage is:
Entamoeba histolyica Giardia lamblia
Entamoeba coli
Trichomonas vaginalis
Entamoeba histolytica trophozoites & cysts Entamoeba histolytica trophozoites.
Entamoeba histolyica cysts.
Entamoeba coli trophozoites & cysts. Acanthamoeba trophozoites reach the brain by:
10- Stained smears from organs in kala-azar show:
a. Epimastigote form
b. Amastigote form
c. Promastigote form d. Trypomastigote form
11- To diagnose cutaneous leishmaniasis, biopsy is better taken from:
a. base of the ulcer
b. lymph node draining the ulcer
c. edge of the ulcer
d. skin around the ulcer
12- The following arthropod transmits visceral leishmaniasis: a. Culicoides
b. Simulium
c. Chrysops
d. Phlebotomus
13- Protozoal infections that may cause fever and hepatosplenomegaly
a. Visceral leishmaniasis
b. African trypanosomiasis (sleeping sickness)
c. American trypanosomiasis (Chagas’ disease)
d. Non of the above
e. All of the above
14- Smear taken from the edge of oriental sore reveals: a. promastigote
b. amastigote
c. epimastigote
d. trypomastigote
15- Protozoa causing conjunctivitis include:
a. Trypanosoma cruzi
b. T. brucei gambiense
c. T. brucei rhodesiense
d. Leishmania donovani
16- Winterbottom’s sign is seen in:
a. b. c. d.
Cutaneous leishmaniasis Visceral leishmaniasis African trypanosomiasis
American trypanosomiasis
17- In African trypanosomiasis, the infective stage is found in:
Short stumpy metacyclic trypanosomes Saliva of Triatoma
Saliva of Glossina
Stool of Triatoma
Stool of Glossina
18- Posterior nuclear shift occurs in:
a. Trypanosoma cruzi
b. Trypanosoma gambiense
c. Trypanosoma rhodesiense
d. Trichomonas vaginalis
19- In chronic Chagas’ disease, the main lesions are in:
a. Digestive and respiratory tracts.
b. Heart and liver.
c. Heart and digestive tract.
d. Liver and spleen.
20- Megacolon associated with Chagas’ disease:
a. Is manifested by diarrhoea.
b. Occurs early in the disease.
c. Is due to oedema of the mucosa.
a. b. c. d. e.
d. Is associated with constipation. 21- In malaria, sporogony occurs in:
a. b. c. d.
Human RBCs Human liver cells Female Anopheles
Cerebral blood vessels
22- Adherence of the parasitized red cells in P. falciparum infection is the cause of:
a. black water fever
b. cerebral malaria
c. malarial recrudescence
d. malarial relapse
23- Pathogenesis of vivax malaria is mainly due to:
a. Persistence of hypnozoites in the liver.
b. Rupture of hepatocytes & release of schizont content.
c. Rupture of RBCs & liberation of pigment & parasite products.
d. Formation of gametocytes in blood stream.
24- Recrudescence in malaria is due to:
a. b. c. d.
Infection transmitted by blood transfusion. Incomplete eradication of asexual blood stages. Persistent gametocyte in RBCs.
Activation of hypnozoites.
25- Manifestations of congenital toxoplasmosis can be first seen in: a. neonatal period
b. adulthood
c. childhood
d. all of the above
26- Toxoplasmosis is fatal in AIDS patients by causing:
a. Nephrotic syndrome
b. Disseminated encephalitis
c. Megacolon & constipation
d. Megaoesophagus & dysphagia
27- Oocysts of Toxoplasma gondii is found in:
a. Brain of chronic patients
b. Tissues of infected man
c. Faeces of infected cats
d. Faeces of infected man
28- Blindness caused by Toxoplasma is due to:
a. Corneal opacity
b. Optic neuritis
c. Retinochoroiditis
d. Panophthalmitis
29- Hydrocephalus can occur in the following conditions:
a. b. c. d.
Cerebral malaria
Naegleria encephalitis Cerebral toxoplasmosis Sleeping sickness
30- Tissue cysts of Toxoplasma occur in:
a. b. c. d.
Stool of cat Stool of man
Human brain
Human blood
-31
a. b. c. d. e.
-32
a. b. c. d.
-33
a.
b.
c.
d.
-34
a. b. c. d.
-35
a.
b.
c. -36
-37
-38
The Sequelae الآثار الناتجة عن of infection with Toxoplasma depends on: immune status of infected human
age of infected human
virulence of the infecting parasite strain none of the above
all of the above
Tissue cyst of Toxoplasma is found in: Stool of cat
Infected human blood
Meat of cattle
All of the above
Microsporidia infect host cell through:
Attachment to host cell by sucking disk.
Injection of sporoplasm through polar filament.
Lysis of host cell membrane by lytic enzymes.
Phagocytosis of opsonized spore.
Microsporidiaaffects:
The human cornea
The human muscles The human intestine All of the above
Which of the following protozoa may cause dysentery?
Cryptosporidium parvum oocysts Entamoeba histolytica cyst Trichomonas vaginalis trophozoites
A patient presenting with dysentery, the patient was infected by the following method:
a. Bite of female sandfly
b. Contamination of skin abrasions by Triatoma faeces
c. Flies contaminating food by quadrinucleate cyst
A patient presenting with dysentery, If the patient was not properly treated, the following complication may occur:
a- Haemoglobinuria
b- Appendicitis
c- Nephrotic syndrome
Which of the following protozoa may cause dysentery?
a. Toxoplasma gondii tachyzoites b. Balantidiun coli trophozoite c. Giardialambliatrophozoites
39- Which of the following protozoa may cause haemolytic anaemia? a. Leishmania amastigotes
b. Gametocyte stage of P.falciparum
c. Polymorphictrypanosomes
40- A patient presenting with haemolytic anaemia , the patient was infected by the following method:
a. Bite of female Anopheles
b. Contamination by Triatoma faeces
c. Bite of sandfly
41- A patient presenting with haemolytic anaemia , Which of the following is the cause of anaemia?
a. Bonemarrowaffection
b. Destruction of RBCs
c. Decreased iron intake in food

42- Which of the following protozoa may cause aplastic anaemia? a. Leishmania amastigotes
b. Ring stage of Babesia
c. Toxoplasmagondiitrophozoites
43- Which of the following protozoa may cause hepatosplenomegaly?
a. G.lamblia trophozoite
b. Leishmania amastigotes
c. Balantidium coli cyst
44- A patient presenting with hepatosplenomegaly , Diagnosis is confirmed by the following method:
a. Detection of parasite by skin test
b. Detection of parasite in bone marrow
c. Detection of parasite in stool
45- Which of the following protozoa may cause hepatosplenomegaly? a. G.lamblia trophozoite
b. Polymorphic trypanosomes
c. B.colicyst
46- Which of the following protozoa may cause appendicitis? a. G.lamblia trophozoite
b. Balantidium coli trophozoite
c. Entamoebacolicyst
47- A patient presenting with appendicitis , The causative protozoa produces the following lesion:
a. Ulcer with sharp-cut edge & indurated margin
b. Flask-shaped ulcer
c. Nodularlesion
48- A patient presenting with appendicitis , The causative protozoa may produces the following complication: a. Spread of protozoa to liver or lungs
b. Perforation & peritonitis
c. Steatorrhoea&malabsorption
49- Myiasis is invasion of human tissues by: a- Larva of Pulex
b- Larva of Aedes
c- Larva of Sarcophaga
d- Larva of D.medinensis
50- In African trypanosomiasis, the infective stage is found in: a- Saliva of Glossina
b- Saliva of Phlebotomus c- Stool of Glossina
e- Stool of Phlebotomus
51- A patient presenting with corneal ulcer , Which of the following parasites can cause corneal ulcer?
a. E.histolytica trophozoite
b. Acanthamoeba trophozoite
c. Trypanosoma cruzi
52- A patient presenting with corneal ulcer , Which of the following represents the mode of infection by the causative protozoa?
a. ContaminationbyTriatomafaeces
b. Use of contaminated contact lens
c. Flies standing on eyes & face
53- A patient presenting with corneal ulcer , How can you confirm your diagnosis? a. Sample suspension in fresh water
b. CSF examination to detect the parasite
c. Cornealscrapingtodetecttheparasite
54- A patient presenting with swollen eye-lid , Which of the following parasites can cause swollen eye?
a. Toxoplasma gondii trophozoite b. Acanthamoeba trophozoite
c. Trypanosomacruzi
55- A patient presenting with swollen eye , Which of the following represents the mode of infection by the causative protozoa
a. Contamination by Triatoma faeces
b. Use of contaminated contact lens
c. Flies standing on eyes & face
56- A patient presenting with swollen eye , How can you confirm your diagnosis?
a. Sample suspension in fresh water
b. Blood film examination
c. Corneal scraping to detect the parasite
57- Fleas transmit the following except:
a. Epidemictyphus
b. Plague
c. Endemic typhus
d. Hymenolepis diminuta
58- Scrub typhus is transmitted by:
a- Indirect mechanical transmission.
b- Cyclopropagative transmission.
c- Cyclodevelopmental transmission. d- Trans-stadial transmission.
59- Winterbottom’s sign is seen in: a- Toxoplasmosis
b- Leishmaniasis
c- African trypanosomiasis
d- Acute Chagas’ disease
60- The following statement is NOT true for Cryptosporidiosis:
a- It is a self limited disease in immunocompetent persons. b- Bloody diarrhea is associated with infection.
c- Atrophy of intestinal villi is the cause of malabsorption. d- Both external & internal autoinfection may occur.
61- Charcot Leyden crystals appear in stool in infection with:
a. Entamoeba histolytica
b. Babesia divergens
c. Enterobius vermicularis
d. Diphyllobothrium latum
62- The human flea is the vector of the following disease
a.
b. c. d.
Plague
Epidemic relapsing fever Vagabond’s disease Trench fever
63- Female Anopheles transmits: a- Trichinosis
b- Human malaria
c- Onchocerciasis d- Chagas’ disease
64- The following arthropod transmits cutaneous leishmaniasis:
a.
b. c. d.
Phlebotomus
Tunga pentrans
Simulium Aedes aegypti
65- The following protozoa can evade the immune system by antigen variation: a- American trypanosomes
b- African trypanosomes
c- Leishmania donovani
d- Toxoplasma gondii
66- In diagnosing cutaneous leishmaniasis, biopsy is better taken from:
a.
b. c. d.
edge of the ulcer
base of the ulcer
skin around the ulcer
lymph node draining the ulcer
67- Cyclops is NOT the intermediate host in the following infection:
a. b. c. d.
a- Giardiasis
b- Cryptosporidiosis c- Cyclosporiasis
d- Isosporiasis
69- The following arthropod transmits visceral leishmaniasis: a- Triatoma
b. Tunga pentrans
c- Phlebotomus
d- Culicoides
70- Tissue cysts of Toxoplasma gondii develop in:
a- skin of the patient
b- organs of the patient
c- small intestine of the patient
d- large intestine of the patient
71- The following disease is caused by fleas: a- Trench fever
b- Epidemic typhus
c- Scrub typhus
d- Chigger’s disease
72- Ocular myiasis is caused by:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Aedes aegypti
Oestrus ovis
Culicoides
Simulium
D.latum infection D.mansoni infection D.medinensis infection
D. caninum infection
68- Autoinfection DOES NOT occur in the following parasitic infections:
73- Cutaneous nodular myiasis may occur by:
a. b. c.
Culex pipiens Tunga penetrans
Pediculus
d. Cordylobia
74- If Leishmania tropica ulcer is left without treatment the following occurs:
a.
b.
c.
d.
spreading occurs to mucus membrane
development of disfiguring scar & solid immunity
spreading occurs eroding cartilage
ulcer heals leaving no trace behind
75- Sabin Feldman dye test is used to diagnose:
a. African trypanosomiasis
b. Cryptosporidium infection
c. Toxoplasma infection
d. Plasmodium infection
76- Malaria parasites that have an affinity for old red cells include:
a. b. c. d.
Plasmodium vivax Plasmodium falciparum
Plasmodium malariae
Plasmodium ovale
77- Hyper reactive malarial splenomegaly is due to: a- Suppression of NK cells
b- Reduction of T suppressor cells
c- Reduction of B lymphocytes
d- Suppression of Macrophages
78- Cardiac lesion occurring in Chagas’ disease is due to: a- Granuloma formation
b- Immune complex deposition c- Allergic reactions
d- Autoimmune disease
79- Severe anaemia occurring in falciparum malaria is due to: a- parasite invades RBCs at all ages
b- parasite haemolyzes RBCs in a short time c- parasite induces hypersplenism
d- parasite induces knobs on RBCs surface
80- The sequelae of infection with Toxoplasma DO NOT depend on the following:
a.
b.
c.
d.
the immune status of infected human
the sex of infected human
virulence of the infecting parasite strain
the age of the infected human
81- Trophozoites of Naegleria fowleri are NOT detected in: a- wet mount of cerebrospinal fluid of patient.
b- Giemsa-stained tissue smear of patient.
c- Giemsa-stained blood film of patient.
d- cultured cerebrospinal fluid of patient.
82- The sequelae of congenital infection with Toxoplasma DO NOT depend on the following: a- the protective immunity of the pregnant mother
b- the age of the foetus at the time of infection
c- the sex of the foetus
83- Relapse occurring in P.vivax & P.ovale is due to:
a- low grade parasitaemia with lowered immunity.
b- reactivation of hypnozoites in the liver.
c- Rupture of hepatocytes & release of schizont content.
d- Formation of gametocytes in blood stream.`
84- The following is NOT an obligate intracellular parasite: a- Giardia lamblia
b- Leishmania tropica c- Plasmodium vivax d- Babesia divergens
85- Balantidium coli infection may produce:
a. Frequent extra intestinal lesions
b. Rectal prolapse
c. Acute appendicitis
d. Steatorrhoea & flatulence
86- Accidental myiasis is caused by: a- Simulium
b- Culex pipiens
c- Glossina palpalis d- Musca domestica
87- All oocysts of the following parasite pass in human stool fully developed: a- Toxoplasma gondii
b- Isospora belli
c- Cryptosporidium parvum d- Cyclospora cayetanensis
88- Demodex folliculorum attacks:
a- interdigital spaces, back & axilla.
b- hair follicles & sebaceous glands.
c- pubic hairs & eye lashes.
d- inguinal region & genitalia.
89- T.cruzi can evade the immune system by: a- Antigenic modification.
b- Sequestration.
c- Cleavage of antibody molecule.
d- Ejection of membrane attack complex.
90- Epidemic relapsing fever is transmitted by: a- Saliva of body louse
b- Stool of body louse
c- Crushing of head louse d- Crushing of body louse
91- Pediculus humanus corporis transmits: a- Epidemic typhus
b- Endemic typhus c- Dengue fever
d- Oroya fever
92- Babesiosis is caused by:
a- Bite of female Anopheles
b- Bite of soft tick
c- Bite of hard tick
d- Congenital route
93- The following parasite can evade the immune system by sequestration:
a. b. c. d.
Schistosoma mansoni Trichuris trichiura
Giardia lamblia
Plasmodium vivax
94- Jaundice may accompany severe infection with:
a. Naegleria fowleri
b. Trichomonas vaginalis
c. Giardia lamblia
d. Balantidium coli
95- Watery diarrhoea is a clinical presentation in infection with: a- Entamoeba coli
b- Entamoeba histolytica
c- Cryptosporidium parvum d- Toxoplasma gondii
96- Hydrocephalus can occur in the following infections: a- Malignant malaria
b-Toxoplasmosis
c- Sleeping sickness
d- Naegleria encephalitis
97- Peritonitis occurs as a complication of:
a- Capillaria infection
b. Giardia lamblia infection c. Balantidium coli infection d. Trichinella infection
98- Semi-specific myiasis occurs due to invasion of human tissues by:
a. b. c. d.
Gastrophilus larva Stomoxys larva Oestrus larva Wohlfahrtia larva
99- Phthirus pubis is found attached to:
a. b. c. d.
aural hairs of patients nasal hairs of patients sole of foot of patient eye lashes of patients
100- Trans-ovarian transmission occurs in:
a. b. c. d.
Human fleas Metallic flies
Hard ticks
Mosquitoes
101- The following protozoon is sexually transmitted to man: a- Plasmodium ovale
b- Balantidium coli
c- Giardia lamblia
d- Trichomonas vaginalis
102- Semi-specific myiasis occurs due to invasion of human tissues by:
a.
b.
c. d.
Larva of Oestrus ovis Larva of Calliphora Larva of Aedes aegypti Larva of Cordylobia
103- Vagabond’s disease occurs due to: a- Heavy infection with bed bugs
b- Heavy infection with lice
c- Heavy infection with fleas
d- Heavy infection with storage mites
104- Diagnosis of myiasis depends on: a- Severity of the case
b. c. d.
Size of the invading larvae
Site of the lesion
Identification of posterior spiracles
105- Tick paralysis occurs due to:
a- Viral infection transmitted by soft ticks.
b- Bacterial infection transmitted by soft ticks. c- Toxins released by ticks in their saliva.
d- Toxins released by ticks in their stool.
106- Metronidazole is NOT indicated in the treatment of: a-Trichomonas vaginalis
b- Entamoeba histolytica c- Acanthamoeba
d- Balantidium coli
107- The infective stage of visceral leishmaniasis is:
a.
b. c. d.
The promastigote form
The epimastigote form
The amastigote form The trypomastigote form
108- A flask-shaped ulcer develops in the following protozoal infection: a- Leishmania infection
b- Isospora belli infection c-Cryptosporidium parvum infection d- Balantidium coli infection
109- Severe Giardiasis occurs in patients with:
a. b. c. d.
a- blood film examination shows pigments in infected RBCs. b- infection occurs by soft tick bite.
c- Infection is severe in immunocompromized patient.
d- periodicity of symptoms occur.
111- Body louse transmits B.recurrentis by: a- its release in saliva
b- its release in faeces
c- its release in crushed body
d- its release in coxal fluid
112- Adherence of the parasitized red cells in P. falciparum infection is the cause of: a- black water fever
b- malarial recrudescence
c- cerebral malaria
d- malarial relapse
113- Human flea transmits plague to man by:
a- inoculating Yersinia pestis by posterior station
Increased secretory IgA in small intestine Hypergammagloulinaemia
Increased gastric acidity
Diminished gastric acidity or achlorohydria 110- In human infection with Babesia, the following is true:
b- inoculating Yersinia pestis by anterior station c- inoculating Yersinia pestis by crushing of flea d- inoculating Yersinia pestis in coxal fluid
114- Body louse transmits R.prowazekii by: a- anterior station
b- posterior station
c- trans-ovarian route
d- release in coxal fluid
115- Perennial rhinitis may be caused by: a- Storage mites
b- House dust mites
c- Itch mites
d- Trombiculate mites
116- Recrudescence occurring in P.malariae & P.falciparum is due to: a- low grade parasitaemia with lowered immunity.
b- reactivation of hypnozoites in the liver.
c- Hepatocytes rupture & release of schizont content.
d- Formation of gametocytes in blood stream.
117- Rickettsia prowazekii:
a-Is transmitted in epidemic by tick bite. b-Remain dormant to cause Brill Zinsser disease. c-Multiplies in the body cavity of body louse.
d-Is transmitted in the saliva of body louse.
118- Nephrotic syndrome in quartan malaria is due to: a- Autoimmune reaction.
B-Immune complex deposition.
c- Granuloma formation.
d- Immunosuppression.
119- L. donovani ( visceral leishmaniasis or kala azar ) produces the following immunopathological lesion in patient’s body:
a- Autoimmune reaction.
b- Granuloma formation.
c- Immune complex deposition. d- Immunosuppression.
120- P.falciparum produces the following immunopathological lesion in patient’s body: a- Autoimmune reaction.
b- Granuloma formation.
c- Immune complex deposition. d- Immunosuppression.
121- Specific myiasis occurs due to invasion of human tissues by:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Piophila larva Dermatobia larva Stomoxys larva Wohlfahrtia larva
122- Itch mite( scabies ) produces the following skin lesion:
a. acne-like lesions & comedones.
b. elevated reddish tracks with minute vesicles.
c. nodular lesions at bony prominences
d. depigmented & hyperpigmented skin areas.
123- Follicle mite ( demodex) produces the following skin lesion: a- acne-like lesions & comedones.
b- elevated reddish tracks with minute vesicles. c- nodular lesions at bony prominences
d- depigmented & hyperpigmented skin areas.
124- Q-fever is transmitted through: a.Saliva of ticks
b.Stool of ticks
c- Saliva & stool of ticks d- Crushing of tick
125- In granulomatous amoebic encephalitis:
a- Infection is strongly associated with swimming.
b- Primary infection occurs in upper respiratory tract. c- Diffuse meningo-encephalitis is common.
d- Invasion of CNS is secondary to primary infection.
126- Water-borne protozoal infection includes: a- Chagas’ disease
b- Trichomoniasis
c- Leishmaniasis
d- Cryptosporidiosis
127- Enlargement of lymph nodes does not occur in: a- African trypanosomiasis
b- Balantidiasis
c- Toxoplasmosis
d- Kala azar
128- The patient passes stool containing mucus tinged with blood in: a-Entamoeba histolytica infection
b-Trichomonas vaginalis infection c-Giardia lamblia infection
d- Toxoplasma gondii infection
129- Duodenitis may occur in the following parasitic infection: a-Trichuriasis
b- Strongyloidiasis c- Amoebiasis
d- Giardiasis
130- The following is not an example of immunopathological reaction to parasitic infections: a-Occurrence of Katayama syndrome
b- Occurrence of nephrotic syndrome
c- Occurrence of amoebic liver abscess
d- Occurrence of black water fever
131- Inhibition of macrophage activity occurs in infection with: a-Babesia divergens
b-Trypanosoma gambiense
c- Leishmania donovani
d- Plasmodium malariae
132- Inhibition of macrophage activity occurs in infection with:
a- Babesia microti
b- Entamoeba histolytica c- Trypanosoma cruzi
d- Plasmodium vivax
133- Inhibition of macrophage activity occurs in infection with:
a- Toxoplasma gondii
b- Giardia lamblia
c- Trypanosoma rhodesiense e- Plasmodium falciparum
MCQ
1- Trophozoite form of amoeba are most likely to be found in :-
a- Semi-formed stool
b- Hard stool
c- Diarrheal stool
d- All of the above
2- Trichomonas vaginalis is least likely to be recovered from:-
a- Urine
b- Vaginal discharge
c- Urethral discharge
d- Feces
3- The amoeba having a flagellate form is :-
a- Trichomonas vaginalis
b- Naegleria fowleri
c- Acanthamoeba
d- All of the above
4- The flagellate without cyst stage is :-
a- Balantidium coli
b- Trichomonas vaginalis ( or dientamoeba fragilis , trichomonas hominis , trichomonas tenax)
c- Giardia lamblia
d- Entamoeba coli
5- All these are pathogenic protozoa except :-
a- Entamoeba histolytica
b- Entamoeba coli ( OR E. hartmanii , E.dispar )
c- Balantidium coli
d- Giardia lamblia
6- Which of the following cause primary amoebic encephalitis ( PAM) :-
a- Entamoeba histolytica
b- Dientamoeba fragilis
c- Naegleria fowleri
d- Balantidium coli
7- Which of the following protozoa is not transmitted by contaminated food or drink :-
a- Giardia lamblia
b- Trichomonas vaginalis
c- Entamoeba histolytica
d- Balantidium coli
8- The amoebic liver abscess :-
a- Associated with eosinophilia
b- Associated with lymphadenopathy
c- Associated with portal HTN
d- Should be aspirated , reveals anchovy sauce appearance
9- The following statement concerning giardia are true except :-
a- Infection is usually acquired by ingestion of food or drink
b- Causes malabsorption and steatorrhea
c- Autoinfection is common
d- Infective stage is trophozoite
10- Each of the following statements concerning trichomonas vaginalis is correct except :-
a- T.vaginals is transmitted sexually
b- T.vaginals cab be diagnosed by visualizing trophozoite
c- T.vaginals can be treated by metronidazole ( flagyl)
d- T.vaginals causes bloody diarrhea
11- Charcot leyden crystals appear in stool in infection with :-
a- Entamoeba histolytica
b- Entamoeba coli
c- Bacillary dysentery
d- Trichomonas vaginalis
12- Contaminated green salad may cause infection with :-
a- Entamoeba histolytica
b- Balantidium coli
c- Giardia lamblia
d- All of the above
13- Balantidium coli infection may produce
a- Extra- intestinal lesions
b- Acute appendicitis
c- Rectal prolapse
d- Steatorrhea & flatulence
14- Jaundice may accompany severe infection with :-
a- Naegleria fowleri
b- Trichomonas vaginalis
c- Giardia lamblia
d- Balantidium coli
15- Dental caries may accompany with :-
a- Trichomonas vaginalis
b- Trichomonas hominis
c- Trichomonas tenax
d- Dientamoeba fragilis
16- The following protozoan transmit sexually to man :-
a- Trichomonas vaginalis
b- Trichomonas hominis
c- Trichomonas tenax d-Giardia lamblia
17- Metronidazole is not indicated in treatment of :-
a- Trichomonas vaginalis
b- Entamoeba histolytica
c- Balantidium coli
d- Acanthamoeba
18- A flask shaped ulcer develop in :-
a- Entamoeba histolytica
b- Balantidium coli
c- Giardia lamblia
d- A,b
19- Severe giardiasis occur in patient with :-
a- Hypergammaglobunaemia
b- Increased secretory IgA in small intestine
c- Increased gastric acidity
d- Diminished gastric acidity or achlorohydria
20- The patient pass stool with mucous tinged with blood in :-
a- Entamoeba histolytica infection
b- Trichomonas vaginalis infection
c- Giardia lamblia infection
d- Trichomonas vaginalis infection
21- The following protozoan can detect in urine :-
a- Trichomonas vaginalis trophozoite
b- Trichomonas vaginalis cyst
c- Giardia lamblia cyst
d- Chilomastix menslii cyst
22- Normal habitat of chilomastix menslii is :-
a- Mouth
b- Large intestine
c- Small intestine
d- Urogenital tract
23- Stool in bacillary dysentery is:-
a- Bulky & offensive
b- Alkaline
c- Acidic
d- Contain charcot leyden crystals
24- Stool in amebic dysentery is :-
a- Bulky & offensive & acidic
b- Bulky & offensive & alkaline
c- Contain bacteria
d- Contain numerous altered RBCs & pus cells
25- Infection of vagina with Candida albicans:-
a- Occur in Alkaline PH of vagina
b- Occur in Acidic PH of vagina
c- Treated with metronidazole
d- Cause fishy odour
MCQ
26- Trophozoite form of amoeba are most likely to be found in :-
e- Semi-formed stool
f- Hard stool
g- Diarrheal stool
h- All of the above
27- Trichomonas vaginalis is least likely to be recovered from :-
e- Urine
f- Vaginal discharge
g- Urethral discharge
h- Feces
28- The amoeba having a flagellate form is :-
e- Trichomonas vaginalis
f- Naegleria fowleri
g- Acanthamoeba
h- All of the above
29- The flagellate without cyst stage is :-
e- Balantidium coli
f- Trichomonas vaginalis ( or dientamoeba fragilis , trichomonas hominis , trichomonas tenax)
g- Giardia lamblia
h- Entamoeba coli
30- All these are pathogenic protozoa except :-
e- Entamoeba histolytica
f- Entamoeba coli ( OR E. hartmanii , E.dispar )
g- Balantidium coli
h- Giardia lamblia
31- Which of the following cause primary amoebic encephalitis ( PAM) :-
e- Entamoeba histolytica
f- Dientamoeba fragilis
g- Naegleria fowleri
h- Balantidium coli
32- Which of the following protozoa is not transmitted by contaminated food or drink :-
e- Giardia lamblia
f- Trichomonas vaginalis
g- Entamoeba histolytica
h- Balantidium coli
33- The amoebic liver abscess :-
e- Associated with eosinophilia
f- Associated with lymphadenopathy
g- Associated with portal HTN
h- Should be aspirated , reveals anchovy sauce appearance
34- The following statement concerning giardia are true except :-
e- Infection is usually acquired by ingestion of food or drink
f- Causes malabsorption and steatorrhea
g- Autoinfection is common
h- Infective stage is trophozoite
35- Each of the following statements concerning trichomonas vaginalis is correct except :-
e- T.vaginals is transmitted sexually
f- T.vaginals cab be diagnosed by visualizing trophozoite
g- T.vaginals can be treated by metronidazole ( flagyl)
h- T.vaginals causes bloody diarrhea
36- Charcot leyden crystals appear in stool in infection with :-
e- Entamoeba histolytica
f- Entamoeba coli
g- Bacillary dysentery
h- Trichomonas vaginalis
37- Contaminated green salad may cause infection with :-
e- Entamoeba histolytica
f- Balantidium coli
g- Giardia lamblia
h- All of the above
38- Balantidium coli infection may produce
e- Extra- intestinal lesions
f- Acute appendicitis
g- Rectal prolapse
h- Steatorrhea & flatulence
39- Jaundice may accompany severe infection with :-
e- Naegleria fowleri
f- Trichomonas vaginalis
g- Giardia lamblia
h- Balantidium coli
40- Dental caries may accompany with :-
e- Trichomonas vaginalis
f- Trichomonas hominis
g- Trichomonas tenax
h- Dientamoeba fragilis
41- The following protozoan transmit sexually to man :-
d- Trichomonas vaginalis
e- Trichomonas hominis
f- Trichomonas tenax
g- Giardia lamblia
42- Metronidazole is not indicated in treatment of :-
e- Trichomonas vaginalis
f- Entamoeba histolytica
g- Balantidium coli
h- Acanthamoeba
43- A flask shaped ulcer develop in :-
e- Entamoeba histolytica
f- Balantidium coli
g- Giardia lamblia
h- A,b
44- Severe giardiasis occur in patient with :-
e- Hypergammaglobunaemia
f- Increased secretory IgA in small intestine
g- Increased gastric acidity
h- Diminished gastric acidity or achlorohydria
45- The patient pass stool with mucous tinged with blood in :-
e- Entamoeba histolytica infection
f- Trichomonas vaginalis infection
g- Giardia lamblia infection
h- Trichomonas vaginalis infection
46- The following protozoan can detect in urine :-
e- Trichomonas vaginalis trophozoite
f- Trichomonas vaginalis cyst
g- Giardia lamblia cyst
h- Chilomastix menslii cyst
47- Normal habitat of chilomastix menslii is :-
e- Mouth
f- Large intestine
g- Small intestina
h- Urogenital tract
48- Stool in bacillary dysentery is :-
e- Bulky & offensive
f- Alkaline
g- Acidic
h- Contain charcot leyden crystals
49- Stool in amebic dysentery is :-
e- Bulky & offensive & acidic
f- Bulky & offensive & alkaline
g- Contain bacteria
h- Contain numerous altered RBCs & pus cells
50- Infection of vagina with Candida albicans:-
a- Occur in Alkaline PH of vagina
b- Occur in Acidic PH of vagina
c- Treated with metronidazole
d- Cause fishy odour
51- Trophozoites are infective stage in :-
a- E. histolytica b- E.coli
c- T.vaginalis d- E.dispar
52- Winterbottom’s sign is seen in :-
a- toxoplasmosis b-leishmania
c-african trypanososmes d-acute chagas’ disease
53- The following arthropod transmit cutaneous leishmaniasis :-
a- aedes b-glossina c-phlebotomus d-simulium
54- The following arthropod can transmit leishmania tropica minor ( L.tropica ) :-
a- glossina palpalis b-glossina morsitans c-aedes
d-stomoxys calcitrans
55- Salivary glands are devoid from parasitic forms in :-
a- glossina palpalis b-glossina morsitans c-lutzomyia
d-tunga penetrans
56- Proboscis of arthropod can transmit :-
a- Gambian sleeping sickness b-chagas’ disease
c-kala- azar
d-rhodesian sleeping sickness
57- In diagnosis of cutaneous leishmaniasis , biopsy is taken from :-
a-base of ulcer
b-edge of ulcer
c-skin around ulcer
d-lymph node draining ulcer
58- Best diagnosis of kala- azar ( visceral leishmaniasis ) , we depend on :-
a- detect parasites in blood film
b-biopsy from bone marrow to detect amastigotes
c-serological test
d-montenegero test
59- Leismania tropica ulcer left untreated , the following occurs :-
a-spreading to m.m.
b-development of disfiguring ulcer & solid immunity
c-spreading erode cartilage
d-ulcer heal leave no scar
60- In granulomatous amoebic encephalitis :-
a- infection is strongly associated with swimming
b-primary infection occur in upper respiratory tract
c-diffuse meningo-encephalitis is common
d-invasion of CNS is secondary to primary infection
61- Enlargement of LNs doesn’t occur in :-
a- African trypanososmes b-kala azar c-balantidiasis
d-chagas’ disease
62- Oriental sore is caused by bite of :-
a- glossina species b-phlebotomus species c-stomoxys calcitrans d-a,c
63- Xenodiagnoses can be applied for diagnosis of :- a-L.donovani
b-T.cruzei
c-L.tropica
d-T.brucei
64- In visceral leishmaniasis , culture on NNN medium results in
a- amastigote
b-promastigote ( leptomonad form )
c-epimastigote
d-leishmanoid form
65- Drug of choice in ttt of primary amebic encephalitis is :- a- amphotericicn B
b- metronidazole
c-tinidazole
d-nifurtimox
66- Pathogenic species of trypanosoma that is present in America are :-
a- T.gambiense
b-T. rhodesiense
c-T.cruzi
d-none of the above
67- Principal insect vector of T.rhodesiense is :-
a-triatoma b-sandfly c-tse tse
d- mosquitoes
68- Protozoa causing conjunctivitis include :- a-T.cruzi
b-T.brucei c-L.donovani d-none of the above
69- The characteristic romana’s sign is in :-
a-leishmaniasis b-toxoplasmosis c-sleeping sickness d-acute chagas’ disease
70- Which of the following protozoa primarily infect macrophages
a-T.brucei b-T. cruzei c-L.donovani d-T. vaginalis